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- Frequently Asked Questions
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HOW ARE CREDITOR'S CLAIMS AGAINST THE SETTLOR PAID FROM AN IRREVOCABLE TRUST? (MCL 700.7506)
700.7103 Definitions
(i) "Settlor" means a person, including a testator or a trustee, who creates a trust. If more than 1 person creates a trust, each person is a settlor of the portion of the trust property attributable to that person's contribution. The lapse, release, or waiver of a power of appointment does not cause the holder of a power of appointment to be treated as a settlor of the trust.
700.7506 Creditor's claim against settlor; "settlor" explained.
(1) Whether or not the terms of a trust contain a spendthrift provision, the following rules apply:
(a) During the lifetime of the settlor, the property of a revocable trust is subject to claims of the settlor's creditors.
(b) After the death of a settlor, and subject to the settlor's right to direct the source from which liabilities will be paid, the property of a trust that at the settlor's death was revocable by the settlor, either alone or in conjunction with another person, is subject to expenses, claims, and allowances as provided in section 7605.
(c) With respect to an irrevocable trust, a creditor or assignee of the settlor may reach no more than the lesser of the following:
(i) The claim of the creditor or assignee.
(ii) The maximum amount that can be distributed to or for the settlor's benefit exclusive of sums to pay the settlor's taxes during the settlor's lifetime.
(2) If a trust has more than 1 settlor, the amount a creditor or assignee of a particular settlor may reach under subsection (1)(c) must not exceed the settlor's interest in the portion of the trust attributable to that settlor's contribution.
(3) A trust beneficiary is not considered a settlor merely because of a lapse, waiver, or release of a power of withdrawal over the trust property.
(4) An individual who creates a trust is not considered a settlor with regard to the individual's retained beneficial interest in the trust that follows the termination of the individual's spouse's prior beneficial interest in the trust if all of the following apply:
(a) During the lifetime of the individual's spouse, the only distributees or permissible distributees of the trust income or principal are either of the following:
(i) The individual's spouse.
(ii) The individual's spouse and either of the following:
(A) The individual's issue.
(B) The issue of the individual's spouse.
(b) The individual retains a beneficial interest in the trust income, trust principal, or both, which beneficial interest follows the termination of the individual's spouse's prior beneficial interest in the trust.
(5) An individual is not considered a settlor of a trust for the benefit of the individual:
(a) If the settlor is the individual's spouse, regardless of whether or when the individual was the settlor of a trust for the benefit of that spouse.
(b) To the extent that the property of trust was subject to a general power of appointment in another individual.
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HOW ARE CREDITOR'S CLAIMS AGAINST A BENEFICIARY PAID FROM AN IRREVOCABLE TRUST? (EPIC 7502-7505)
Common-Law General Rule
The common-law rule is that creditors of beneficiaries of trusts may reach assets of a trust in satisfaction of amounts owed to the creditor by the beneficiary.
Exceptions to General Rule
There are three statutory exceptions to the common law rule: Spendthrift Trust; Support Trust; and Discretionary Trust.
I. Spendthrift Trust
Definition (EPIC 7103)
“Spendthrift provision” means a term of a trust that restrains either the voluntary or involuntary transfer of a trust beneficiary’s interest.
Effect of Spendthrift Trust (EPIC 7502)
(1) A spendthrift provision is valid and enforceable.
(2) A term of a trust providing that the interest of a trust beneficiary is held subject to a “spendthrift trust,” or words of similar import, restrains both voluntary and involuntary transfer of the trust beneficiary’s interest.
(3) Except as provided in sections 7504, 7506, and 7507, the trust beneficiary’s interest in a trust may not be transferred in violation of a valid spendthrift provision and trust property is not subject to enforcement of a judgment until distributed directly to the trust beneficiary.
II. Support Trust
Support Trust Definition (EPIC 7103)
“Support provision” means a provision in a trust that provides the trustee shall distribute income or principal or both for the health, education, support, or maintenance of a trust beneficiary, or language of similar import. A provision in a trust that provides a trustee has discretion whether to distribute income or principal or both for these purposes or to select from among a class of beneficiaries to receive distributions under the trust provision is not a support provision, but rather is a discretionary trust provision.
Effect of Support Trust (EPIC 7503)
(1) The interest of a trust beneficiary that is subject to a support provision may not be transferred and the trust property is not subject to the enforcement of a judgment until income or principal, or both, is distributed directly to the trust beneficiary. After a distribution to a trust beneficiary whose interest is subject to a support provision, the income and principal distributed are subject to the enforcement of a judgment only to the extent that the income or principal, or both, is not necessary for the health, education, support, or maintenance of the trust beneficiary.
(2) The use or enjoyment of trust property by a trust beneficiary whose interest is subject to a support provision may not be transferred and is not subject to the enforcement of a judgment against the trust beneficiary.
III. Discretionary Trust
Discretionary Trust Definition (EPIC 7103)
“Discretionary trust provision” means a provision in a trust, regardless of whether the terms of the trust provide a standard for the exercise of the trustee’s discretion and regardless of whether the trust contains a spendthrift provision, that provides that the trustee has discretion, or words of similar import, to determine 1 or more of the following:
(i) Whether to distribute to or for the benefit of an individual or a class of beneficiaries the income or principal or both of the trust.
(ii) The amount, if any, of the income or principal or both of the trust to distribute to or for the benefit of an individual or a class of beneficiaries.
(iii) Who, if any, among a class of beneficiaries will receive income or principal or both of the trust.
(iv) Whether the distribution of trust property is from income or principal or both of the trust.
(v) When to pay income or principal, except that a power to determine when to distribute income or principal within or with respect to a calendar or taxable year of the trust is not a discretionary trust provision if the distribution must be made.
Effect of Discretionary Trust (EPIC 7505)
The transferee or creditor of the beneficiary of a discretionary trust provision does not have a right to any amount of trust income or principal that may be distributed only in the exercise of the trustee's discretion, and trust property is not subject to the enforcement of a judgment until income or principal, or both, is distributed directly to the trust beneficiary.
IV. Exceptions (to the Exceptions)
Sec. 7504. Spendthift Provision or Support Provision.
(1) The interest of a trust beneficiary that is subject to a spendthrift provision, a support provision, or both may be reached in satisfaction of an enforceable claim against the trust beneficiary by any of the following:
(a) A trust beneficiary’s child or former spouse who has a judgment or court order against the trust beneficiary for support or maintenance.
(b) A judgment creditor who has provided services that enhance, preserve, or protect a trust beneficiary’s interest in the trust.
(c) This state or the United States.
(2) The court shall order the trustee to satisfy all or part of a judgment described in subsection (1) only out of all or part of distributions of income or principal as they become due.
(3) Notwithstanding that the terms of the trust include a spendthrift provision, this section does not apply to the interest of a trust beneficiary that is subject to a discretionary trust provision.
(4) As used in this section, “child” includes any person for whom an order or judgment for child support has been entered in this or another state.
Sec. 7507. Overdue or Mandatory Distribution.
(1) Whether or not a trust contains a spendthrift provision, a creditor or assignee of a trust beneficiary may reach a mandatory distribution of income or principal, including a distribution upon termination of the trust, if the trustee has not made the distribution to the trust beneficiary within a reasonable time after the designated distribution date.
(2) As used in this section, “mandatory distribution” means a distribution of income or principal that the trustee is required to make to a trust beneficiary under the terms of the trust, including a distribution upon termination of the trust. Mandatory distribution does not include a distribution subject to the exercise of the trustee’s discretion even if either of the following applies:
(a) The direction is expressed in the form of a standard of distribution.
(b) The terms of the trust authorizing a distribution use language of discretion and language of direction.
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- Sample Attachment to IRS Form 1041
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GLOSSARY OF MEDICAID TERMS (BPG)
Adjoining Property: Land and buildings located on the land, which touches the land the homestead is on if not separated from the homestead by other persons' property. It includes land separated only by roads, public rights-of-way, streams, etc.
Asset Limit: The maximum amount of countable assets the asset group is allowed.
Assets: Cash, any other personal property and real property.
Available Income: Income that is actually received or that can be reasonably anticipated. Reasonably anticipated means that the amount can be estimated and the date of receipt is known. It includes amounts deducted for such things as taxes and garnishments.
Baseline Date:
BEM: Bridges Eligibility Manual.
Beneficiaries of a Trust: Any person(s) designated in a trust instrument as benefiting in some way from the trust, excluding the trustee or any other person whose benefit consists only of reasonable fees or payments for managing or administering the trust. The beneficiary can be the grantor himself, another person(s), or a combination of any of these persons.
Client: A person(s) applying for, currently receiving program benefits, inquiring about benefits or is part of a base group.
Community Spouse: L/H or waiver patient's spouse when the spouse: 1) Has not been, and is not expected to be, in a hospital and/or Long-Term Care (LTC) facility for 30 or more consecutive days, and 2) For waiver patients only, the spouse is not also approved for the waiver.
Countable Income: Available income remaining after applying the policies in the BEM 500 series.
Future Month: Any calendar month for which MA eligibility is being determined that is after the processing month.
Grantor: Any person who creates a trust. It includes anyone who furnishes real or personal property for the creation of the trust.
Homestead: The shelter that a person owns (or is buying) where they usually live and which is their principal place of residence. The homestead includes the shelter, the land on which the shelter is located, and related building on such land, but does not include other shelters on the property.
Income: Benefits or payments measured in money.
Income Month: The calendar month determined by policy, from which income information is used in determining eligibility for or level of program benefits.
Initial Application: The most recent application used to establish eligibility at the time any currently active assistance program was opened.
Initial Asset Assessment: A determination of the total amount of countable assets owned by a client and/or his spouse as of the day of the first continuous period of care that began on or after 9-30-89.
Irrevocable Trust: A trust that cannot, in any way, be revoked by the grantor, court, trustee, or any other person or entity.
Lady Bird Deed: Also called an Enhanced Life Estate Deed or a Transfer on Death Deed. Allows a property to transfer on death without probate. The owner/grantor still owns the property and can sell, rent or make other changes to the property without restriction until their death. Because they still have unrestricted interest in the property a Lady Bird deed is not considered a divestment when an applicant is in a divestment penalty situation.
L/H Patient: The Medicaid client who was in the hospital and/or long-term care facility (LTC) in a hospital and/or long-term care facility (L/H) month.
L/H Month: A calendar month containing: 1) At least one day that is part of a period in which a person was (or is expected to be) in an LTC facility and/or hospital for at least 30 consecutive days, and 2) No day that the person was a waiver patient.
Limited Liability Company: A limited liability company is an entity formed under state law by filing articles of organization. Generally, for income tax purposes, a single-member LLC is regarded as an entity separate from its owner and reports its income and deductions on its owner's federal income tax return.
Long Term Care (LTC): LTC means being in any of the following: • A nursing home that provides nursing care. • A county medical care facility that provides nursing care. • A hospital long-term care unit. • A MDHHS facility that provides active psychiatric treatment. • A special MR nursing home. • A MDHHS facility for individuals with intellectual disability that provides ICF/ID nursing care. A person may receive hospice care in one of these facilities. He is still considered in LTC.
Look-Back Period: The look back period is 60 months prior to the baseline date. Transfers that occur on or after a client’s baseline date must be considered for divestment. In addition, transfers that occurred within the 60-month look-back period must be considered for divestment.
MAGI: Modified Adjusted Gross Income. A methodology used to determine financial eligibility for Medicaid. It is based on Internal Revenue Service rules and relies on federal tax information.
Patient Pay Amount (PPA): The monthly amount of a person's income which Medicaid considers available for meeting the cost of hospital or LTC services. Medicaid reduces its payment to the hospital/LTC facility by the patient-pay amount. There are different types of PPAs: hospital, and post-eligibility. Hospital PPAs are used to establish income eligibility; see BEM 545. A post-eligibility PPA is determined only after MA eligibility is established; see BEM 546. A person can have only one type of PPA for any given calendar month.
Personal Care Services: Assistance that is provided to a person who needs help in performing his own personal daily activities (for example, eating, grooming, medication, shopping, laundry, cooking).
Principal: The assets in a trust. The assets may be real property or personal property.
Processing Date: The date the specialist determines eligibility.
Processing Month: The calendar month during which the specialist determines MA eligibility.
Redetermination: The periodic, thorough re-evaluation of all eligibility factors to determine if the group continues to be eligible for program benefits. Referred to as a renewal for Medicaid and Healthy Michigan Plan. A passive renewal does not require any action from the beneficiary.
Resources: Resource means all the client’s and the spouse’s assets and income. That is, all cash and any other personal property, as well as any real property, that an individual (or the spouse): owns, has the right or power to convert to cash, and is not legally restricted from using for the individual’s support and maintenance. An asset does not stop being a resource just because it has no current market value.
Retro MA: The first, second, or third calendar month prior to the most recent application for MA or FIP.
Revocable Trust: A trust that can, under state law, be revoked or modified by the grantor, court, the trustee, or any other person or entity. This includes a trust that allows for revocation or modification only when a change occurs, such as the grantor leaves the LTC facility or the client becomes competent.
Shelter Expense: The amount of money that must be paid for the home for rent or for a mortgage or land contract or for condominium or cooperative housing fees, property taxes, home insurance and special assessments.
Trust: Any arrangement in which a grantor transfers property to a trustee with the intention that it be held, managed, or administered by the trustee for the benefit of the grantor or certain designated persons. The trust must be valid under state law and manifested by a valid trust instrument or agreement. This includes any legal instrument or devise that is similar to a trust.
Waiver: Home and Community based waiver; see BEM 106, MIChoice Waiver.
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WHAT ARE THE RELEVANT DEFINITIONS FOUND IN THE QDTA?
Link to full statute (html)
Link to table of contents
Qualified Disposition (Section 2)
"Qualified disposition" means, subject to subparagraphs (iii) and (iv), a disposition after which both subparagraphs (i) and (ii) apply to the subject property:
(i) The subject property is owned by 1 or more trustees at least 1 of whom is a qualified trustee.
(ii) The subject property is governed by a trust instrument including, but not limited to, a trust instrument as modified by an election described in section 5(6), under which the transferor only has rights, powers, and interests that are permitted by section 4(2).
(iii) A disposition is not a qualified disposition to the extent that, at the time of the disposition, the transferor is in arrears on a child support obligation by more than 30 days.
(iv) A disposition is not a qualified disposition if a transferor or any person that is related or subordinate to the transferor within the meaning of section 672(c) of the internal revenue code of 1986, 26 USC 672(c), may act as an advisor. For the purposes of this subparagraph, act as an advisor does not include the power to direct the investment decisions of the trust, the power to veto a distribution from the trust, or the right to remove a trustee or advisor and to appoint a new trustee or advisor.
Advisor (Section 2)
"Advisor" means a person who is given authority by the terms of a trust instrument to remove, appoint, or both, 1 or more trustees or to direct, consent to, approve, or veto a trustee's actual or proposed investment or distribution decisions. A person is considered an advisor even if the person is denominated by another title, such as trust protector. Any person may serve as an advisor.
Disposition (Section 2)
"Disposition" means a transfer of property that either creates a new fiduciary relation between at least 1 trustee and a trust beneficiary or newly subjects property to a preexisting fiduciary relation between at least 1 trustee and a trust beneficiary. The transfer may be by conveyance or assignment, by exercise of a power of appointment, including a power to substitute 1 trustee for another or to add 1 or more new trustees, or a power of revocation or amendment or, except as provided in this subdivision, by disclaimer, release, or relinquishment.
Qualified Trustee (Section 2)
"Qualified trustee" means a person, other than the transferor, who meets all of the following conditions:
(i) For an individual, the individual is a resident of this state or, in all other cases, is authorized by the law of this state to act as a trustee and whose activities are subject to supervision by DIFS, FDIC, Comptroller of the Currency, or the Office of Thrift Supervision.
(ii) The person maintains or arranges for custody in this state of some or all of the property that is the subject of the qualified disposition and administers all or part of the trust in this state.
(iii) The person's usual place of business where some of the records pertaining to the trust are kept is located in this state or, if the person does not have such a place of business, the person's residence is in this state. For a corporate trustee, the usual place of business is the business location of the primary trust officer.
Trust Instrument (Section 2)
"Trust instrument" means an instrument appointing a qualified trustee or qualified trustees for the property that is the subject of a disposition to which all of the following apply:
(i) The instrument expressly incorporates the law of this state to govern the validity, construction, and administration of the trust.
(ii) The instrument is irrevocable.
(iii) The instrument provides that the interest of the transferor or other trust beneficiary in trust property may not be transferred, assigned, pledged, or mortgaged, whether voluntarily or involuntarily, before the qualified trustee or qualified trustees actually distribute trust property to the trust beneficiary, and that provision of the trust instrument is considered a restriction on the transfer of the transferor's beneficial interest in the trust that is enforceable under applicable nonbankruptcy law within the meaning of section 541(c)(2) of the bankruptcy code 11 USC 541(c)(2).
Qualified Affidavit (Section 6)
(1) Except as provided in subsection (6), for purposes of this section, a "qualified affidavit" means an affidavit in which the transferor states that at the time of the transfer of the property to the trust all of the following apply:
(a) The transferor has full right, title, and authority to transfer the property to the trust.
(b) The transfer of the property to the trust will not render the transferor insolvent.
(c) The transferor does not intend to defraud a creditor by transferring the property to the trust.
(d) The transferor does not know of or have reason to know of any pending or threatened court actions against the transferor, except for those court actions identified by the transferor on an attachment to the affidavit.
(e) The transferor is not involved in any administrative proceedings, except for those administrative proceedings identified on an attachment to the affidavit.
(f) The transferor is not currently in arrears on a child support obligation by more than 30 days.
(g) The transferor does not contemplate filing for relief under the bankruptcy code, 11 USC 101 to 1532.
(h) The property being transferred to the trust was not derived from unlawful activities.
(2) The transferor shall sign a qualified affidavit before a qualified disposition is made.
(5) If a qualified affidavit is required by this section, and a transferor fails to timely sign a qualified affidavit or signs a defective affidavit, the failure or defect may be considered as evidence in an action described in section 5(2) to the extent permitted by the Michigan rules of evidence, but the validity of the qualified disposition is not affected in any other way because of the failure or defect.
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HOW MAY CREDITORS CHALLENGE A TRANSFER TO AN IRREVOCABLE TRUST UNDER THE UVTA?
566.34 Transfer with intent to defraud.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (4), a transfer made or obligation incurred by a debtor is voidable as to a creditor, whether the creditor's claim arose before or after the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred, if the debtor made the transfer or incurred the obligation in either of the following circumstances:
(a) With actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud any creditor of the debtor.
(b) Without receiving a reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the transfer or obligation, and the debtor did either of the following:
(i) Was engaged or was about to engage in a business or a transaction for which the remaining assets of the debtor were unreasonably small in relation to the business or transaction.
(ii) Intended to incur, or believed or reasonably should have believed that the debtor would incur, debts beyond the debtor's ability to pay as they became due.
(2) In determining actual intent under subsection (1)(a) or (4), consideration may be given, among other factors, to whether 1 or more of the following occurred:
(a) The transfer or obligation was to an insider.
(b) The debtor retained possession or control of the property transferred after the transfer.
(c) The transfer or obligation was disclosed or concealed.
(d) Before the transfer was made or obligation was incurred, the debtor had been sued or threatened with suit.
(e) The transfer was of substantially all of the debtor's assets.
(f) The debtor absconded.
(g) The debtor removed or concealed assets.
(h) The value of the consideration received by the debtor was reasonably equivalent to the value of the asset transferred or the amount of the obligation incurred.
(i) The debtor was insolvent or became insolvent shortly after the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred.
(j) The transfer occurred shortly before or shortly after a substantial debt was incurred.
(k) The debtor transferred the essential assets of the business to a lienor that transferred the assets to an insider of the debtor.
(3) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (4), a creditor that makes a claim for relief under subsection (1) has the burden of proving the elements of the claim for relief by a preponderance of the evidence.
(4) A qualified disposition is fraudulent as to the creditor whose claim arose after the qualified disposition only if the qualified disposition was made with actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud any creditor of the debtor. With respect to a qualified disposition, a creditor has the burden of proving the elements of the claim for relief by clear and convincing evidence.
566.35 Transfer by debtor as voidable.
(1) A transfer made or obligation incurred by a debtor is voidable as to a creditor whose claim arose before the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred if the debtor made the transfer or incurred the obligation without receiving a reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the transfer or obligation and the debtor was insolvent at that time or the debtor became insolvent as a result of the transfer or obligation.
(2) A transfer made by a debtor is voidable as to a creditor whose claim arose before the transfer was made if the transfer was made to an insider for an antecedent debt, the debtor was insolvent at that time, and the insider had reasonable cause to believe that the debtor was insolvent.
(3) Except as provided in subsection (4) and subject to section 2(2), a creditor that makes a claim for relief under subsection (1) or (2) has the burden of proving the elements of the claim for relief by a preponderance of the evidence.
(4) With respect to a qualified disposition, a creditor has the burden of proving the elements of the claim for relief by clear and convincing evidence.
566.39 Claim for relief; extinguishment.
A claim for relief with respect to a transfer or obligation under this act is extinguished unless action is brought within 1 or more of the following time periods:
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (c), if the claim for relief is under section 4(1)(a) or (b) or 5(1), within the time provided in section 5813 or 5855 of the revised judicature act of 1961, 1961 PA 236, MCL 600.5813 and 600.5855.
(b) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (c), if the claim for relief is under section 5(2), within 1 year after the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred.
(c) If the claim for relief is under section 4 or 5, with respect to a qualified disposition, the time provided in section 5 of the qualified dispositions in trust act.
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- First Party Medicaid Trust Checklist
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- Third Party Gift Trust Checklist
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- SBO Trust Checklist
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- Family Asset Protection Trust Checklist
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- Domestic Asset Protection Trust Checklist
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- Gender of Settlor
- Gend1
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- When will this trust terminate?
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- Is the trustee authorized to terminate the trust?
- Terminate
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- Will the settlor act as the sole trustee?
- Settlor
- Will the settlor act as a co-trustee?
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- Is any trustee a professional or financial entity?
- Pro
- Appoint co-trustees?
- How are co-trustees authorized to act together?
- Co-Trustees
- How should a trustee be paid for services?
- Comp
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- Do you want to review the basic requirements for a "qualified disposition"?
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- Is the trustee an individual or business entity?
- Is the trustee subject to supervision by DIFS, FDIC, Comptroller of Currency, or Office of Thrift Supervision?
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- Does the trustee have a place of business in Michigan?
- Is the trustee a resident of Michigan?
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- Will the trustee keep some of the trust property in Michigan?
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- Will the trustee act as the trust advisor?
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- Is the trustee "related or subordinate" to the transferor?
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- Is the trust advisor "related or subordinate" to the transferor?
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- Is the transferor behind in child support?
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- Will the transfers to the trust render the transferor "insolvent" as defined by the UVTA?
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- Is any transfer to the trust being made with "intent to defraud" a creditor as defined by the UVTA?
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- Is a trust director to be appointed?
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- What standard applies to distribution of income by the trustee?
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- What standard applies to distributions of principal by the trustee?
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- Select all that apply
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- How many cash gifts for this trust?
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- Does the purchase price include tangible personal property located on the premises?
- Opt TPP
- Is the optionee prohibited from selling the property for a period of years?
- Opt Sell
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- How many separate shares among the First Beneficiaries?
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- How many separate shares among the Second Beneficiaries?
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- How many separate shares among the Third Beneficiaries?
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- Include definition of "Per Stirpes"?
- Per Stirpes
- Include definition of "Per Capita"?
- Per Capita
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- What portion of tangible personal property (TPP) to fund this trust?
- TPP
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- Add provisions for retirement accounts to this trust?
- Retirement
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- Fund this trust with real estate?
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- Line 8a: Is this application for an LLC?
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- Line 11: Date started (first day of month after trust signed)
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- Date trust funded
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- Do you have, or do you expect to any employees in the next 12 months?
- How would you like to receive your EIN confirmation letter?
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- Will documents be signed in-office?
- Office
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- Show Data Fields
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